Why did the Romans change Europe's language, but the barbarians didn't? – history.stackexchange.com 16:29 Posted by Unknown No Comments When the Roman republic/empire took over the Mediterranean between 40 BC and 20 AD, Vulgar Latin replaced the local languages almost completely. Basque seems to be the only remaining pre-Roman ... from Hot Questions - Stack Exchange OnStackOverflow via Blogspot Share this Google Facebook Twitter More Digg Linkedin Stumbleupon Delicious Tumblr BufferApp Pocket Evernote Unknown Artikel TerkaitWhat is the word to describe a situation where one makes a big deal out of things that can be done with little effort? – english.stackexchange.comWho was the dead Voyager crew member discovered by the two Voth archaeologists? – scifi.stackexchange.comHow are metalogic proofs valid? – math.stackexchange.comRealistic 'hacks' that programmer may exploit in a brand new FTL comm system that was not securely written? – worldbuilding.stackexchange.comWould it hurt racial balance if every PC gets a bonus feat at level 1? – rpg.stackexchange.comIs 100 hours per year of teaching a heavy load for a lecturer? – academia.stackexchange.com
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