Why “king & queen” but not “roi & reine”? – english.stackexchange.com 14:53 Posted by Unknown No Comments If I am not mistaken, modern English language has a large influence from Old French through the Norman invasion by William the Conqueror in 1066 and subsequent Norman monarchs. However, the modern ... from Hot Questions - Stack Exchange OnStackOverflow via Blogspot Share this Google Facebook Twitter More Digg Linkedin Stumbleupon Delicious Tumblr BufferApp Pocket Evernote Unknown Artikel TerkaitWhen something carries more than recommended – ell.stackexchange.comShould I share the prize money from a paper award for my graduate work with my former PhD advisor? – academia.stackexchange.comWhy do three-phase transformers not use toroidal cores? – electronics.stackexchange.comIllustrate the Least Common Multiple – codegolf.stackexchange.comIs there a word for the joy a smart aleck feels when they point out to other people how stupid they are? – english.stackexchange.comWhat did Kim Jong-un mean by “denied the existence of … my country”? – politics.stackexchange.com
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