Defining functions with integrals – math.stackexchange.com 03:31 Posted by Unknown No Comments Is it okay to have a function $f(x)$ defined by $$f(x)=\int_0^x{x^2-x\,dx}\,?$$ If so, what would $f'(x)$ be? I've seen many questions like these on my math competitions (they give functions defined ... from Hot Questions - Stack Exchange OnStackOverflow via Blogspot Share this Google Facebook Twitter More Digg Linkedin Stumbleupon Delicious Tumblr BufferApp Pocket Evernote Unknown Artikel TerkaitHow do I add myself to bug report? – askubuntu.comWhen was this marvelous thing first invented? – puzzling.stackexchange.comLooking for an older anime floating crosses/people? Over earth – scifi.stackexchange.comIs faith necessary for man to survive? – philosophy.stackexchange.comA Preposterous Puzzle – puzzling.stackexchange.comWhat would happen if we just made vacuous truths false instead? – math.stackexchange.com
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