If a creature has resistance to bludgeoning damage, shouldnt it also have resistance to force damage? – rpg.stackexchange.com 11:25 Posted by Unknown No Comments The Player's Handbook describes Force damage in such a way that it seems to be a solid magical manifestation that strikes your opponent in such a way to deal damage. But what separates this from ... from Hot Questions - Stack Exchange OnStackOverflow via Blogspot Share this Google Facebook Twitter More Digg Linkedin Stumbleupon Delicious Tumblr BufferApp Pocket Evernote Unknown Artikel TerkaitWhy are a lot of should-have-been-on-MSO questions closed instead of migrated back? – meta.stackexchange.comAlign section with text body – tex.stackexchange.comWrong application of L'Hôpital's rule? – math.stackexchange.comWhat would one need to do to get an amateur satellite into orbit? – space.stackexchange.comSimple/quick question - how to correctly interpret this inequality? – math.stackexchange.comGeneralized FiveThirtyEight Sequences – codegolf.stackexchange.com
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