Why is an interval used to define homotopy, categorically speaking? – math.stackexchange.com

Why is an interval used to define homotopy, categorically speaking? – math.stackexchange.com

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It seems that one could define homotopy almost all in category theory as follows: Let $T$ be a terminal object and $I$ be some object. Let $i_0,i_1:T\rightarrow I$ be two maps. Suppose that ...

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