Why is an interval used to define homotopy, categorically speaking? – math.stackexchange.com

Why is an interval used to define homotopy, categorically speaking? – math.stackexchange.com

00:26 No Comments
It seems that one could define homotopy almost all in category theory as follows: Let $T$ be a terminal object and $I$ be some object. Let $i_0,i_1:T\rightarrow I$ be two maps. Suppose that ...

from Hot Questions - Stack Exchange OnStackOverflow
via Blogspot

Share this

Unknown

Artikel Terkait

0 Comment to "Why is an interval used to define homotopy, categorically speaking? – math.stackexchange.com"

Post a Comment

Subscribe to: Post Comments (Atom)