Basic Probability Intuition – math.stackexchange.com

I am puzzled by the intuition behind the following fact: If $P(A) \neq 0$ and $P(B) \neq 0$, then $P(B|A) \geq P(B)$ is equivalent to $P(A|B) \geq P(A)$. This is easy enough to show by definition ...

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