Why is it when you roll two dice, given one is 3, the probability of the other also being 3 is 1/11 not 1/6? – math.stackexchange.com 07:47 Posted by Unknown No Comments Why isn't it 1/6 because rolling a 3 on one is already given? from Hot Questions - Stack Exchange OnStackOverflow via Blogspot Share this Google Facebook Twitter More Digg Linkedin Stumbleupon Delicious Tumblr BufferApp Pocket Evernote Unknown Artikel TerkaitRemoving a space placed after a linebreak at the end of \lstinline – tex.stackexchange.comUnexpected use of topology in proofs – math.stackexchange.comHow to fix a weird relationship at work – workplace.stackexchange.comHow to instruct someone to take-off climbing harness when done? – outdoors.stackexchange.comHow can I tactfully refuse to switch seats on flights? – interpersonal.stackexchange.comHow can I speed up the construction of high quality testing materials? – cseducators.stackexchange.com
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