How to show inductively that (2n)! > (n!)^2 – math.stackexchange.com

How to show inductively that (2n)! > (n!)^2 – math.stackexchange.com

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So far I have: Base case: $$ n = 1 : (2(1))! > (1!)^2$$ $$ 2! > 1!^2$$ $$2 > 1$$ Induction step: Assume this is true for some $n > 1$ Let n = p + 1 $$(2(p+1))! > ((p+1)!)^2$$ ...

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