If f^n is the identity map then prove that f is bijection – math.stackexchange.com

Let $f:A\rightarrow A$ and $f^n=1_A$ where $f^n=\underbrace{f\circ f\circ\cdots\circ f}_\text{n times}$. Prove that $f$ is bijection. I found some type of proof and it's a contradiction proof but ...

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