If f^n is the identity map then prove that f is bijection – math.stackexchange.com 11:10 Posted by Unknown No Comments Let $f:A\rightarrow A$ and $f^n=1_A$ where $f^n=\underbrace{f\circ f\circ\cdots\circ f}_\text{n times}$. Prove that $f$ is bijection. I found some type of proof and it's a contradiction proof but ... from Hot Questions - Stack Exchange OnStackOverflow via Blogspot Share this Google Facebook Twitter More Digg Linkedin Stumbleupon Delicious Tumblr BufferApp Pocket Evernote Unknown Artikel TerkaitHow do you know when a key name needs an accidental? – music.stackexchange.comHow much electricity is there in the "power switch" button cables? – superuser.comCan the airport name be omitted when contacting ATC if the frequency is not used by any other nearby airports? – aviation.stackexchange.comWhat killed this character? – scifi.stackexchange.commake operators overloading less redundant in python? – stackoverflow.comCyclists that are out to get your Strava KOMs - should I challenge or? – bicycles.stackexchange.com
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