Why is the following operator invertible – math.stackexchange.com 17:11 Posted by Unknown No Comments Suppose that $T : X \rightarrow X$ is an isometry between two Banach spaces. Then if $|\lambda| < 1$, then $T^{-1} - \frac{1}{\lambda}I_X$ is invertible. Can someone explain this step as it is ... from Hot Questions - Stack Exchange OnStackOverflow via Blogspot Share this Google Facebook Twitter More Digg Linkedin Stumbleupon Delicious Tumblr BufferApp Pocket Evernote Unknown Artikel TerkaitWhat kind of fallacy/strategy is this in a discussion? Please help, much appreciated – philosophy.stackexchange.comCan the product of infinitely many rational numbers be irrational? – math.stackexchange.comDoes this graph have homoscedasticity? – stats.stackexchange.comIs partial armour an optional rule? – rpg.stackexchange.comWhat is the term for the fallacy/strategy of ignoring logical reasoning intended to disprove a belief? – philosophy.stackexchange.comHow do I clarify that the gift someone gave me is mine when they are asking for it back? – interpersonal.stackexchange.com
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