Can (a ==1 && a== 2 && a==3) ever evaluate to true? – stackoverflow.com 06:44 Posted by Unknown No Comments Is it ever possible that (a ==1 && a== 2 && a==3) could evaluate to true, in JavaScript? This is interview question asked by a major tech company. My answer was that it's impossible. ... from Hot Questions - Stack Exchange OnStackOverflow via Blogspot Share this Google Facebook Twitter More Digg Linkedin Stumbleupon Delicious Tumblr BufferApp Pocket Evernote Unknown Artikel TerkaitWho was Aenys II Targaryen? – scifi.stackexchange.comSelect top performance question – dba.stackexchange.comWhat is the smallest manned aircraft with four engines? – aviation.stackexchange.comWhat power adapter do I need for my Asus R500V K55VD? – superuser.comI'm a developer given responsibility to watch for our CEO's autistic teenager – workplace.stackexchange.comI am not a Wizard, nor Warlock. How can I have a "full-featured" familiar? – rpg.stackexchange.com
0 Comment to "Can (a ==1 && a== 2 && a==3) ever evaluate to true? – stackoverflow.com"
Post a Comment