Basel problem paradox? – math.stackexchange.com 02:03 Posted by Unknown No Comments So according to Euler's proof of the Basel problem, $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{6},$$ But only for $n \in \mathbb{Z}$. But if $n$ was a positive real and $n \geqslant 1$, then ... from Hot Questions - Stack Exchange OnStackOverflow via Blogspot Share this Google Facebook Twitter More Digg Linkedin Stumbleupon Delicious Tumblr BufferApp Pocket Evernote Unknown Artikel TerkaitUnintuitive expression evaluation with incrementation – stackoverflow.comIs there an official, widely used subject classification? – academia.stackexchange.comUsing ''A cold yesterday'' as noun phrase – ell.stackexchange.comCriterion for deciding whether matrix is diagonalizable – math.stackexchange.comWhat does it mean to "dine off sth"? – ell.stackexchange.comShould I just not bother to "reserve" rental cars anymore? – travel.stackexchange.com
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