Basel problem paradox? – math.stackexchange.com

So according to Euler's proof of the Basel problem, $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{6},$$ But only for $n \in \mathbb{Z}$. But if $n$ was a positive real and $n \geqslant 1$, then ...

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