Basel problem paradox? – math.stackexchange.com 02:03 Posted by Unknown No Comments So according to Euler's proof of the Basel problem, $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{6},$$ But only for $n \in \mathbb{Z}$. But if $n$ was a positive real and $n \geqslant 1$, then ... from Hot Questions - Stack Exchange OnStackOverflow via Blogspot Share this Google Facebook Twitter More Digg Linkedin Stumbleupon Delicious Tumblr BufferApp Pocket Evernote Unknown Artikel TerkaitWhy is Esperanto a noun, but other languages are adjectives? – esperanto.stackexchange.comHow to prevent seeming like a Marty Stu-ish villain is cheating? – writing.stackexchange.comMisplaced \omit when adding align* within tabularx – tex.stackexchange.comIs Greatsword superior to Greataxe? – rpg.stackexchange.comRebuilding Kowloon Walled City? – worldbuilding.stackexchange.comIs the intersection of two subgroups, defined below, always trivial? – mathoverflow.net
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