A better way to prove this inequality – math.stackexchange.com 02:04 Posted by Unknown No Comments Exercise 1.1.6. (b) For positive real numbers $a_1, a_2, ... , a_n$ prove that $$(a_1+a_2+ \ldots +a_n)\Big(\frac{1}{a_1}+\frac{1}{a_2}+ \ldots +\frac{1}{a_n}\Big) \geq n^2.$$ From $AM \geq GM$: ... from Hot Questions - Stack Exchange OnStackOverflow via Blogspot Share this Google Facebook Twitter More Digg Linkedin Stumbleupon Delicious Tumblr BufferApp Pocket Evernote Unknown Artikel TerkaitThe pigeonhole principle and a professor that tells jokes – math.stackexchange.comCan you benefit from two different magical shields? – rpg.stackexchange.comHow to declare a const reference to function type – stackoverflow.comTricky wild goose-chase puzzle – puzzling.stackexchange.comFind the 10-adic cube root of 3 – codegolf.stackexchange.comWhere is the Burrow? – scifi.stackexchange.com
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