A better way to prove this inequality – math.stackexchange.com

A better way to prove this inequality – math.stackexchange.com

02:04 No Comments
Exercise 1.1.6. (b) For positive real numbers $a_1, a_2, ... , a_n$ prove that $$(a_1+a_2+ \ldots +a_n)\Big(\frac{1}{a_1}+\frac{1}{a_2}+ \ldots +\frac{1}{a_n}\Big) \geq n^2.$$ From $AM \geq GM$: ...

from Hot Questions - Stack Exchange OnStackOverflow
via Blogspot

Share this

Unknown

0 Comment to "A better way to prove this inequality – math.stackexchange.com"

Post a Comment

Subscribe to: Post Comments (Atom)