A better way to prove this inequality – math.stackexchange.com 02:04 Posted by Unknown No Comments Exercise 1.1.6. (b) For positive real numbers $a_1, a_2, ... , a_n$ prove that $$(a_1+a_2+ \ldots +a_n)\Big(\frac{1}{a_1}+\frac{1}{a_2}+ \ldots +\frac{1}{a_n}\Big) \geq n^2.$$ From $AM \geq GM$: ... from Hot Questions - Stack Exchange OnStackOverflow via Blogspot Share this Google Facebook Twitter More Digg Linkedin Stumbleupon Delicious Tumblr BufferApp Pocket Evernote Unknown Artikel TerkaitCan someone help me figure out instinctively whats going on here? – electronics.stackexchange.comWhy does a plane shakes while passing through clouds? – aviation.stackexchange.comFind the nearest biquadratic number – codegolf.stackexchange.comWhy include a small resistance between op-amp stages – electronics.stackexchange.comWhat's »Aldää« in »Ey jo, was geht, Aldää?« – german.stackexchange.comWhat ships are on this T-Shirt? – scifi.stackexchange.com
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