I don't understand why I get nonsense by combining two iff statements. – math.stackexchange.com 00:19 Posted by Unknown No Comments E and F are independent iff $\frac{p(E \cap F)}{p(F)}=p(E)$. Also, E and F are independent iff $p(E | F)=p(E)$ Why do I get nonsense if I combine the two? I'd get: E and F are independent iff $p(E ... from Hot Questions - Stack Exchange OnStackOverflow via Blogspot Share this Google Facebook Twitter More Digg Linkedin Stumbleupon Delicious Tumblr BufferApp Pocket Evernote Unknown Artikel TerkaitSimplest circuit to briefly (100ms) power a 1W LED? – electronics.stackexchange.comWhat is Canada's case for applying tariffs on US dairy? – politics.stackexchange.comHow to fight bugs in hiking? – outdoors.stackexchange.comWhy can't mining pools provide fake transactions within the generated blocks? – bitcoin.stackexchange.comHow do I trace library loading? – unix.stackexchange.comDo I deserve to be fired during probation for having given an opinion – workplace.stackexchange.com
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