Nonsense from combining two iffs – math.stackexchange.com

Nonsense from combining two iffs – math.stackexchange.com

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E and F are independent iff $\frac{p(E \cap F)}{p(F)}=p(E)$. Also, E and F are independent iff $p(E | F)=p(E)$ Why do I get nonsense if I combine the two? I'd get: E and F are independent iff $p(E ...

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