Closed under pairwise unions ⇒ closed under arbitrary unions? – math.stackexchange.com 08:13 Posted by Unknown No Comments Let $X$ be a set and $S$ be a collection of subsets of $X$, such that given any $U,V\in S$, $U\cup V\in S$. Intuitively it seems like this should imply that arbitrary unions are also in $S$. That is, ... from Hot Questions - Stack Exchange OnStackOverflow via Blogspot Share this Google Facebook Twitter More Digg Linkedin Stumbleupon Delicious Tumblr BufferApp Pocket Evernote Unknown Artikel TerkaitOnline Interactive mathematics games for mathematicians or mathematicians-to-be! – mathoverflow.netIs visne > vin unique? – latin.stackexchange.comA question about the word 'spirit' used to mean a phonetic 'breathing' – english.stackexchange.comFilling the area between two circles – tex.stackexchange.comHexcellent Minesweeping – codegolf.stackexchange.comShould I pay for a computer up-front or on finance? – money.stackexchange.com
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