Showing that a function is one-to-one – math.stackexchange.com 06:47 Posted by Unknown No Comments How can I show if the following function is one-to-one? $$y = x^2 - x \ (x \ge \frac{1}{2})$$ A function is one-to-one if $f(x_1) = f(x_2)$ then $x_1 = x_2$. So I put in $x_1$ and $x_2$ in the ... from Hot Questions - Stack Exchange OnStackOverflow via Blogspot Share this Google Facebook Twitter More Digg Linkedin Stumbleupon Delicious Tumblr BufferApp Pocket Evernote Unknown Artikel TerkaitNeed help on TikZ picture – tex.stackexchange.comOne takes an exam, but what about a job interview? – english.stackexchange.comWhy would society not cremate it's dead in a world where necromancy is possible? – worldbuilding.stackexchange.comRender an object from "all" perspectives – blender.stackexchange.comBuild me a city – codegolf.stackexchange.comIs it ethical to include opinion based code comments for future developers? – workplace.stackexchange.com
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