Showing that a function is one-to-one – math.stackexchange.com

How can I show if the following function is one-to-one? $$y = x^2 - x \ (x \ge \frac{1}{2})$$ A function is one-to-one if $f(x_1) = f(x_2)$ then $x_1 = x_2$. So I put in $x_1$ and $x_2$ in the ...

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