With this definition of completeness, Gödels Incompleteness result seems not surprising, so why it was back then? – math.stackexchange.com

With this definition of completeness, Gödels Incompleteness result seems not surprising, so why it was back then? – math.stackexchange.com

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According to wikipedia a theory (i.e. a set of sentences) is complete iff for every formula either it, or its negation, is provable. On the other side, a logic is complete, iff semantically valid, ...

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