Some strange multinomial averaging – mathoverflow.net

How do I prove : $\sum_{j=2}^{n} (-1)^j {\frac {M(n+j,j;2)}{j!}} = (-1)^n n! + 1$? where $M(n+j,j;2)$ is the multinomial sum $M(n+j,j;2) = \sum_{t_1 + t_2 + \dotsc + t_j = n+j, t_k \geq 2} {n+j \...

from Hot Questions - Stack Exchange OnStackOverflow
via Blogspot

Share this

Artikel Terkait

0 Comment to "Some strange multinomial averaging – mathoverflow.net"