Some strange multinomial averaging – mathoverflow.net 05:57 Posted by Unknown No Comments How do I prove : $\sum_{j=2}^{n} (-1)^j {\frac {M(n+j,j;2)}{j!}} = (-1)^n n! + 1$? where $M(n+j,j;2)$ is the multinomial sum $M(n+j,j;2) = \sum_{t_1 + t_2 + \dotsc + t_j = n+j, t_k \geq 2} {n+j \... from Hot Questions - Stack Exchange OnStackOverflow via Blogspot Share this Google Facebook Twitter More Digg Linkedin Stumbleupon Delicious Tumblr BufferApp Pocket Evernote Unknown Artikel TerkaitWhat is "reboatory"? – english.stackexchange.comHow to politely avoid eating with a colleague – workplace.stackexchange.comGambian in Italy – travel.stackexchange.comProduce a m*n table in HTML – codegolf.stackexchange.comWrong value in ST_distance between two lines – gis.stackexchange.comSpeed up text processing – unix.stackexchange.com
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