Why is the regularization term *added* to the cost function (instead of mutiplied etc.)? – stats.stackexchange.com 06:46 Posted by Unknown No Comments Whenever regularization is used, it is often added onto the cost function such as in the following cost function. $$ J(\theta)=\frac 1 2(y-\theta X^T)(y-\theta X^T)^T+\alpha\|\theta\|_2^2 $$ This ... from Hot Questions - Stack Exchange OnStackOverflow via Blogspot Share this Google Facebook Twitter More Digg Linkedin Stumbleupon Delicious Tumblr BufferApp Pocket Evernote Unknown Artikel TerkaitIs there any Application level firewall for UBUNTU 16.04? (with GUI) – askubuntu.comStolen Computer – puzzling.stackexchange.comQuestion about the complex inner product axioms – math.stackexchange.comLooking for old sci-fi book about Dulgari Empire – scifi.stackexchange.comCould 'being' use as a main verb? – ell.stackexchange.comIs "ageing" the only exception? – english.stackexchange.com
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