Why is that in the Lagrangian formulation the Taylor's series is limited to the first order? – physics.stackexchange.com 03:03 Posted by Unknown No Comments For the Hamilton's principle: $$\delta s =\int_{t_1}^{t_2}L(\mathbf {q+\delta q},\mathbf {\dot q+\delta \dot q},t) dt-\int_{t_1}^{t_2}L(\mathbf {q},\mathbf {\dot q},t) dt=0.\\$$ In the textbooks, ... from Hot Questions - Stack Exchange OnStackOverflow via Blogspot Share this Google Facebook Twitter More Digg Linkedin Stumbleupon Delicious Tumblr BufferApp Pocket Evernote Unknown Artikel TerkaitDeparture from Japan – travel.stackexchange.comWhy are academics so liberal? – academia.stackexchange.comHow do I regain managerial control of my "self-organizing" team? – workplace.stackexchange.comFaster way to calculate the area of this surface – math.stackexchange.comIs it possible to expand non-variadic arguments in a variadic template function? – stackoverflow.comHow do I avoid lecturing my players – rpg.stackexchange.com
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