Fubini's Theorem contradiction – math.stackexchange.com

Fubini's Theorem contradiction – math.stackexchange.com

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Why does the fact that $\int_0^1\int_0^1 \frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} \,dy \,dx = \frac{\pi}{4}$ and $ \int_0^1\int_0^1 \frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} \,dx \,dy = -\frac{\pi}{4}$ doesn't contradict ...

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