Fubini's Theorem contradiction – math.stackexchange.com 09:12 Posted by Unknown No Comments Why does the fact that $\int_0^1\int_0^1 \frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} \,dy \,dx = \frac{\pi}{4}$ and $ \int_0^1\int_0^1 \frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} \,dx \,dy = -\frac{\pi}{4}$ doesn't contradict ... from Hot Questions - Stack Exchange OnStackOverflow via Blogspot Share this Google Facebook Twitter More Digg Linkedin Stumbleupon Delicious Tumblr BufferApp Pocket Evernote Unknown Artikel TerkaitShort exact sequence, torus and a finite group – math.stackexchange.comShould test cases be made available to students for assessed assignments? – cseducators.stackexchange.comKeeping unelectable opposition on life-support? – worldbuilding.stackexchange.comWhat is the difference between bulk speed and thermal speed in solar wind plasma? – physics.stackexchange.comRing closing esterification – chemistry.stackexchange.comHow should floating point inaccuracies be explained and justified? – cseducators.stackexchange.com
0 Comment to "Fubini's Theorem contradiction – math.stackexchange.com"
Post a Comment